ohhungry

All that will limit you is your ram. So it depends mostly on what kind of scripts you are using, some use a lot of ram, and some not so much. But with that set up I think you could probably run around 15-20 bots. I'm running 16 bots right now and using up around 9 gigs of ram. But one of the clients is using up 4gb for 5 bots, so I could probably get it below 8 if I just restarted all my clients. I find the ram usage also goes up over time (probably just cause of the scripts I'm writing, but maybe a little to do with the osbot client as well), so if you are pushing your limit close to the 8gb then you might find sometimes that the clients are running out of memory and crashing.

Not trying to get banned. But it's just telling me now that I don't have to worry about it as long as I keep it at safe locations. If I told you, you would literally LOL It's such a real known location, but apparently no one goes there. It doesn't really prove you won't get banned there, if you are gaining experience there is always a chance of getting banned at any location. And there is a randomness factor to it. I have 2 accounts that were training at the same spot for about 70-80hours straight. Then one got perma banned just today, but the other was perfectly fine :P

It will reach zero at a point infinitely far away. It is similar to how we calculate gravitational energy, by using a reference point at an infinite distance away where the potential energy would be equal to zero. It never reaches 0, because it never reaches infinity. If you were to hypothetically flip a coin an infinite amount of times (which is impossible due to the nature of infinity), you could say that the probability of flipping heads every time is zero, because you are calculating a non-finite amount of trials. On a more interesting note, we actually do know what happens as you approach an infinite amount of trials. We get this through binomial distribution, and the central limit theorem (I haven't looked into it enough to see what the proofs are, but w/e, they exist), which is kind of like the Law of Large Numbers...I think. Anyways, as your number of trials approaches infinity, the average of all the outcomes will approach the normal distribution, or expected value. So if you flip a coin an infinite amount of times, you will actually get just as many heads as tails, assuming it is a non-weighted coin and there is a 50/50 chance of it landing on either heads or tails. Of course, if you don't believe the chances of getting heads every time is zero, you'll probably think that is even more absurd... Good point. This whole problem really revolves around how you perceive the question. I think the only way to really accurately interpret the question is to say "What outcome do I approach if I flip this coin a lot of times", anything else doesn't really make sense in reality.

It will reach zero at a point infinitely far away. It is similar to how we calculate gravitational energy, by using a reference point at an infinite distance away where the potential energy would be equal to zero. It never reaches 0, because it never reaches infinity. If you were to hypothetically flip a coin an infinite amount of times (which is impossible due to the nature of infinity), you could say that the probability of flipping heads every time is zero, because you are calculating a non-finite amount of trials. On a more interesting note, we actually do know what happens as you approach an infinite amount of trials. We get this through binomial distribution, and the central limit theorem (I haven't looked into it enough to see what the proofs are, but w/e, they exist), which is kind of like the Law of Large Numbers...I think. Anyways, as your number of trials approaches infinity, the average of all the outcomes will approach the normal distribution, or expected value. So if you flip a coin an infinite amount of times, you will actually get just as many heads as tails, assuming it is a non-weighted coin and there is a 50/50 chance of it landing on either heads or tails. Of course, if you don't believe the chances of getting heads every time is zero, you'll probably think that is even more absurd...

I am sorry, but you cannot divide by infinity, because infinity is not a number, it is a concept. I just proved it's impossible! 0% chance, as in it cannot happen Your whole case seems to rest on your belief which you've "simplified" as "any number divided by infinity = 0. " Which, you pulled out of your ass- It is not factually based, at all. I don't know where you got that from. You're going to have to provide actual evidence that it is a 0% chance. Provide, for example, the number of times in which the coin is flipped where, from there on out it can reach heads no longer. I would be very interested, as that makes no sense at all. Read Zappa's post. I'm just going to assume you both missed that part of the post...I did indeed prove that if you flipped a coin an infinite amount of times, there is a 0% chance that you would get heads every time. I'll try to explain again, but first, you have to understand what flipping a coin an infinite amount of times means. Infinity is not a number, so when you do something an "infinite amount of times", it means you cannot put a number on the amount of times you flipped that coin, the amount of times it is flipped is never ending. Obviously your idea of "at some point in time it will have to be tails" is ridiculous if you are trying to come up with some type of actual proof. But once again, I will state the logical outcome of flipping a coin an infinite amount of times, and try to explain it better. If you flip a coin, the chances of it landing on heads x times in a row is 1/2^x for x greater than 0. If we are going to perform this task an infinite amount of times, this means we have to take the limit as x approaches infinity of 1/2^x. The limit of this is 0, if you need a proof on limits, go google it. Now you might be saying, "but wait!!, just because the limit is zero doesn't mean it actually reaches 0!!", yes, that is true, but in reality you also never reach infinity, because there is always a number which is bigger than whatever one you are on. The point is, if you COULD flip a coin for an infinite amount of trials, the probability of having heads for every one of that infinite set of trials would be exactly zero. What you seem to be wanting to know is if there is some specific point where the probability becomes zero, and that point is one infinitely far away, a point which we can never reach in reality. So to clarify things further, doing an infinite amount of trials is just taking a limit, because you can't actually do an infinite amount of trials. The only way to deal with infinities is to use limits, to see what number the function approaches as you approach infinity. And to make things more interesting for you, for x E N ( x is an element of the Natural set of Numbers), for every x, there is a non-zero probability that you will flip heads every time, where x is the number of times you flip the coin. BUT, IF YOU FLIP A COIN AN INFINITE AMOUNT OF TIMES, THE PROBABILITY BECOMES ZERO I hope that will convince you that there is indeed a 0 probability, but then again, I don't think you understand your question yet. "The limit of this is 0, if you need a proof on limits, go google it." I did, first two sources say you're wrong. http://www.mathsisfun.com/calculus/limits-infinity.html https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~kouba/CalcOneDIRECTORY/liminfdirectory/LimitInfinity.html You are trying to say the limit to infinity is 0, it is not, and CANNOT be calculated because infinity is not a number. To bad you didn't actually read the links you posted, or you might have learned something...Once you finish highschool math, you will learn that you can in fact take limits to infinity. All of calculus is based around this concept. And in case you still have doubts, you can just use a calculator http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim+x-%3Einfinity+1%2Fx. The only real issue you could have with this is that a limit is the number you are approaching, not one you actually ever reach. But it is the same concept as you never actually reaching infinity, because there is no sign that says "Here, this is infinity, you've gone far enough". But when you say you flip a coin an infinite amount of times, then you are just hypothetically saying "what if we could reach infinity", well then, we would also reach 0 probability. 1st link http://www.mathsisfun.com/calculus/limits-infinity.html Question: What is the value of 1/∞ ? Answer: We don't know! 2nd link https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~kouba/CalcOneDIRECTORY/liminfdirectory/LimitInfinity.html In fact, the forms and are examples of indeterminate forms. Please show me where both of those articles later contradict themselves. 1/infinity is not the same as the limit of 1/x as x-> infinity. http://gyazo.com/cdab8b26b4dc121cbd1b20bea466666c Your second article also has like 10 questions with limits taken to infinity, and gives solutions to all of them... I think when you said the limit to infinity cannot be calculated, you actually meant you cannot divide by infinity, which is true. We can however take the limit as a variable goes to infinity. And as stated in your first link, the limit of 1/x as x approaches infinity is 0. There are cases where the limit does not exist, but this case of flipping a coin is not one of them, because as I showed in my very first post, the limit is indeed 0

If you prove P=NP you would just verify that the security works :P Proving P != NP on the other hand...I'd keep that to myself

I am sorry, but you cannot divide by infinity, because infinity is not a number, it is a concept. I just proved it's impossible! 0% chance, as in it cannot happen Your whole case seems to rest on your belief which you've "simplified" as "any number divided by infinity = 0. " Which, you pulled out of your ass- It is not factually based, at all. I don't know where you got that from. You're going to have to provide actual evidence that it is a 0% chance. Provide, for example, the number of times in which the coin is flipped where, from there on out it can reach heads no longer. I would be very interested, as that makes no sense at all. Read Zappa's post. I'm just going to assume you both missed that part of the post...I did indeed prove that if you flipped a coin an infinite amount of times, there is a 0% chance that you would get heads every time. I'll try to explain again, but first, you have to understand what flipping a coin an infinite amount of times means. Infinity is not a number, so when you do something an "infinite amount of times", it means you cannot put a number on the amount of times you flipped that coin, the amount of times it is flipped is never ending. Obviously your idea of "at some point in time it will have to be tails" is ridiculous if you are trying to come up with some type of actual proof. But once again, I will state the logical outcome of flipping a coin an infinite amount of times, and try to explain it better. If you flip a coin, the chances of it landing on heads x times in a row is 1/2^x for x greater than 0. If we are going to perform this task an infinite amount of times, this means we have to take the limit as x approaches infinity of 1/2^x. The limit of this is 0, if you need a proof on limits, go google it. Now you might be saying, "but wait!!, just because the limit is zero doesn't mean it actually reaches 0!!", yes, that is true, but in reality you also never reach infinity, because there is always a number which is bigger than whatever one you are on. The point is, if you COULD flip a coin for an infinite amount of trials, the probability of having heads for every one of that infinite set of trials would be exactly zero. What you seem to be wanting to know is if there is some specific point where the probability becomes zero, and that point is one infinitely far away, a point which we can never reach in reality. So to clarify things further, doing an infinite amount of trials is just taking a limit, because you can't actually do an infinite amount of trials. The only way to deal with infinities is to use limits, to see what number the function approaches as you approach infinity. And to make things more interesting for you, for x E N ( x is an element of the Natural set of Numbers), for every x, there is a non-zero probability that you will flip heads every time, where x is the number of times you flip the coin. BUT, IF YOU FLIP A COIN AN INFINITE AMOUNT OF TIMES, THE PROBABILITY BECOMES ZERO I hope that will convince you that there is indeed a 0 probability, but then again, I don't think you understand your question yet. "The limit of this is 0, if you need a proof on limits, go google it." I did, first two sources say you're wrong. http://www.mathsisfun.com/calculus/limits-infinity.html https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~kouba/CalcOneDIRECTORY/liminfdirectory/LimitInfinity.html You are trying to say the limit to infinity is 0, it is not, and CANNOT be calculated because infinity is not a number. To bad you didn't actually read the links you posted, or you might have learned something...Once you finish highschool math, you will learn that you can in fact take limits to infinity. All of calculus is based around this concept. And in case you still have doubts, you can just use a calculator http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim+x-%3Einfinity+1%2Fx. The only real issue you could have with this is that a limit is the number you are approaching, not one you actually ever reach. But it is the same concept as you never actually reaching infinity, because there is no sign that says "Here, this is infinity, you've gone far enough". But when you say you flip a coin an infinite amount of times, then you are just hypothetically saying "what if we could reach infinity", well then, we would also reach 0 probability.

Looks like there was a mass banning last night. I had 10 accounts permed last night. Some how my mule got banned when it wasn't even botting, so I'm appealing the shit out of that one. Had like 200 bucks of gold/supplies on that :P

I am sorry, but you cannot divide by infinity, because infinity is not a number, it is a concept. I just proved it's impossible! 0% chance, as in it cannot happen Your whole case seems to rest on your belief which you've "simplified" as "any number divided by infinity = 0. " Which, you pulled out of your ass- It is not factually based, at all. I don't know where you got that from. You're going to have to provide actual evidence that it is a 0% chance. Provide, for example, the number of times in which the coin is flipped where, from there on out it can reach heads no longer. I would be very interested, as that makes no sense at all. Read Zappa's post. I'm just going to assume you both missed that part of the post...I did indeed prove that if you flipped a coin an infinite amount of times, there is a 0% chance that you would get heads every time. I'll try to explain again, but first, you have to understand what flipping a coin an infinite amount of times means. Infinity is not a number, so when you do something an "infinite amount of times", it means you cannot put a number on the amount of times you flipped that coin, the amount of times it is flipped is never ending. Obviously your idea of "at some point in time it will have to be tails" is ridiculous if you are trying to come up with some type of actual proof. But once again, I will state the logical outcome of flipping a coin an infinite amount of times, and try to explain it better. If you flip a coin, the chances of it landing on heads x times in a row is 1/2^x for x greater than 0. If we are going to perform this task an infinite amount of times, this means we have to take the limit as x approaches infinity of 1/2^x. The limit of this is 0, if you need a proof on limits, go google it. Now you might be saying, "but wait!!, just because the limit is zero doesn't mean it actually reaches 0!!", yes, that is true, but in reality you also never reach infinity, because there is always a number which is bigger than whatever one you are on. The point is, if you COULD flip a coin for an infinite amount of trials, the probability of having heads for every one of that infinite set of trials would be exactly zero. What you seem to be wanting to know is if there is some specific point where the probability becomes zero, and that point is one infinitely far away, a point which we can never reach in reality. So to clarify things further, doing an infinite amount of trials is just taking a limit, because you can't actually do an infinite amount of trials. The only way to deal with infinities is to use limits, to see what number the function approaches as you approach infinity. And to make things more interesting for you, for x E N ( x is an element of the Natural set of Numbers), for every x, there is a non-zero probability that you will flip heads every time, where x is the number of times you flip the coin. BUT, IF YOU FLIP A COIN AN INFINITE AMOUNT OF TIMES, THE PROBABILITY BECOMES ZERO I hope that will convince you that there is indeed a 0 probability, but then again, I don't think you understand your question yet.

Not that we actually expected anybody to solve it :P All internet security basically works on the presumption that P=NP anyways

Legit give away, if you solve this math problem I will give you 100mill in 07 gp. Prove P=NP or if instead you prove this one, I will give you 400mill 07 gp!!! Prove P != NP Details about the problem will be posted when I have the time. Or you can just google it...good luck

I just proved it's impossible! 0% chance, as in it cannot happen :P

Well that escalated quickly...I don't have the time to read all your wikipedia copy/pasted posts, but I simply stated you cannot disprove 1+1=2 using mathematical tools because all your mathematical tools are based off the definition of 1+1=2 (not that one in specifically, but in general, the axioms of arithmetic). All your philosophical shit about "what is real" doesn't mean anything, you can't say "Math doesn't exist" unless you are questioning the existence of everything, which isn't really going to lead you anywhere. Math is just a human construct to represent the world. It is based upon the fundamentals of logic (i.e, true, false, implications, etc). And logic is just how the universe works. If all ohhungrys are awesomes, and all awesomes are fuckingreat, then all ohhungrys are fuckingreat. It's just a basic definition which can't be disproven, because there is no lower, simpler level. That being said, math and philosophy are both just extensions of logic, so you really shouldn't hate too much on either one. And to that guy that said "How do you even know math is real", I kinda skimmed over your post and it looks like it's just questioning if math is some innate part of the universe or just something we made up to quantify shit. I'd put my money on math being a man-made quantifier.

Lets do a little math (or atleast I'll make up some math, and hope it makes sense) What's the chance of flipping heads once in a row? 1/2 What's the chance of flipping heads twice in a row? 1/4 What's the chance of flipping heads three times in a row? 1/8 What's the chance of flipping heads four times in a row? 1/16 As you can see, this follows a simple pattern of 1/2^n We can express this as a product series where xi = 1/2. For those of you unfamiliar with a product series, here is a picture http://gyazo.com/a5cd47e6f6244c345f0c4213378242d4 A product series is denoted by a pi symbol with a lower bound below the pi symbol, denoted by i, and an upper bound above the pi symbol, denoted by n. This is followed by an argument xi, which in our case is 1/2. If we are flipping a coin infinite times, our product series will go from i=0 to n=infinity. Which is basically just (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)...over and over again infinitely many times. The limit of this series (i.e, the number which it converges to) is 0, because any number divided by infinity = 0. Therefore the probability of flipping a coin and it landing on heads infinitely many times is exactly 0. Note: You cannot actually divide by infinity, I added this just for simplicity. Instead of dividing by infinity, you would take the limit of 1/x as x goes to infinity. For those who do not yet know what limits are, basically if x becomes really really really really big, what number does 1/x tend towards? TL;DR: The probability of getting heads again approaches 0 as you flip the coin more times. If you flip it infinitely many times, the probability becomes 0, because that's how math works.

I played video games 8+ hours a day every day, no regrets

24/7 break time would be your best chance of avoiding a ban

You can't disprove 1+1=2, because it's a definition. It doesn't require a proof because it is a predefined axiom of arithmetic.

Looking to buy about 100k, if anybody has some I'll pay around 7-8gp ea

Don't listen to them man, they're just haters. All you gotta do is believe http://gyazo.com/10338aacb214f34bb466b2f22a4533df

Make an all in one fletcher

Mainly because the auto fighters have replaced the need for combat script dedicated to one specific monster

You coulda bought it from a memb supplier for like 3.6-3.7m

would be more work to do refer a friend for 07 though, cause you would have to actually login to eoc...

I don't understand why he said it acts as a gold sink, this is the exact same as people selling memberships on here, except now you can do the trade in game...

Uhhh...what do you mean? He means that the average price of gold bars is ~186gp http://forums.zybez.net/runescape-2007-prices/1250-gold-bar And that in general most people who made threads here requesting items give a very low offer. Thats because botters are the only ones who can sell items at a low price and still make money...anyways, the price is negotiable, I just really need bulk gold bars