since when do letters apply in maths lol

 

Since algebra?

Edited October 2, 201312 yr by Mou

 

since when do letters apply in maths lol

 

Since algebra?

 

you're an algebra

The answer is 24.

94.7 - pm me with details to claim prize pls

http://arxiv.org/pdf/1301.3093.pdf

The answer is obvious... 69,420

As time approches infinity P=NP, the problem is really solving a relative problem in a non-relative plain, in this case infinte time. 

If Time reaches infinite amounts, it's only logical to assume that every possible option to solving the problem has been exhasted, and eventually a solution, or in some cases the lack there-of would be discovered.

Also given an infinite amount of time and a finite set of options to derive the solution it's only logical to beleive that not only would the solution be discovered, but also the most easiest method at arriving at said solution.... thus P=NP

To be totally honest string theory pretty much makes this NP=P, but I don't think we have enough comment space for that.

 

That's one hell of a copy/paste, to sound halfway smart, bro.

 

http://web.mit.edu/newsoffice/2009/explainer-pnp.html